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PHR & SPHR
More than 200 Questions & Answers for Review:
1. An EEO-I must be filed if ___ employees are working for an individual company.
A. 15
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
ANS: D
2. The Fair Labor Standards Act allows employees to recover pay up to __ years of back pay.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANS: B
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-evaluations?
A. Tendency to inflate ratings due to self-serving bias.
B. Tendency to inflate ratings due to blind spots.
C. Women and nonwhites tend to rate themselves lower.
D. Majority will show a tendency of show poor differentiation of skills.
ANS: D
4. Which of the following is not a guideline for reducing perceptual factors?
A. Recognize external causes of behavior.
B. Be aware of stereotypes, biases and assumptions.
C. Emphasize objective information.
D. Increase customer awareness.
ANS: D
5. Which of the following is not a strategy for improving decision making?
A. Ask lots of questions.
B. Learn from prior decisions.
C. Prioritize decisions into short-term and long-term priorities.
D. Never use the Plan-Do-Check-Act Cycle of decision making.
ANS: D
6. Which of the following is matches the definition, a system in which unions and management negotiate with each other to develop the work rules under which union members will work for a stipulated period of time?
A. Union steward exchange
B. Team building
C. Collective bargaining
D. Break-even analysis
ANS: C
7. Which of the following is another name for an Ishikawa diagram?
A. Cause and Effect Diagram
B. Bell Curve
C. Pareto Diagram
D. Trend Analysis
ANS: A
8. The acronym CPPC stands for?
A. Cost Plus Percentage of Control
B. Cost Plus Percentage of Contract
C. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
D. Cost Plus Cost
ANS: C
9. Which of the following is not considered part of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
A. Social needs
B. Safety
C. Motivation
D. Self-actualization
ANS: C
10. Parento diagrams work on the ___ rule.
A. 50/50
B. 60/40
C. 80/20
D. 90/10
ANS: C
11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of The FISH Philosophy?
A. Play
B. Make Their Day
C. Be There
D. Strategy culture
ANS: D
12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of stress in the workplace?
A. 43% of all adults suffer adverse effects from stress.
B. Stress management techniques increase employee negligence.
C. 75-90% of all physician office visits are for stress-related ailments.
D. Stress costs U.S. industry more than $300 billion dollars per year, or $7,500 per worker.
ANS: B
13. Which of the following is the correct formula for turnover rates according to the Department of Labor?
A. (Number of Terminations x 100)/(Avg. Number of Employees)
B. (Number of Terminations x 10/(Avg. Number of Employees)
C. (Avg. Number of Employees)/(Number of Terminations)
D. (Avg. Number of Employees)/(Number of Terminations x 10)
ANS: A
14. Which of the following occurs if an employee comes to work with an inappropriate dress length and is then promptly sent home to change clothes?
A. Punishment
B. Extinction
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Negative reinforcement
ANS: A
15. If an employee is earning a pay rate that is excessive compared to their counterparts of equal ability, their pay rate may be identified as a/an ____ rate.
A. Green circle
B. Evaluation
C. Red circle
D. Bandwidth
ANS: C
16. The Griggs v. Duke Power case created the judicial concept of
A. adverse treatment
B. disparate treatment
C. adverse impact
D. sexual discrimination
ANS: c
17. How many weeks of unpaid leave must an employer let an employee take under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)?
A. 6 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 12 weeks
ANS: D
18. Which of the following is NOT considered a human process intervention?
A. leadership development
B. redesigning jobs
C. teambuilding exercises
D. conflict resolution
ANS: B
19. What is the first step the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) will take when there is a complaint of alleged discrimination?
A. the EEOC will review the charges to see if they have jurisdiction
B. the EEOC will issue a "right to sue" notice to the complainant
C. the EEOC will send a letter to the employer informing them that a D. complaint has been filed
the EEOC determines whether or not there is "reasonable" cause
ANS: C
20. Which term describes when a business owner operates both a union organization and a non-union organization?
A .yellow-dog contract
B. double-breasting
C. common situs
D. coordinated bargaining
ANS: B
21. A manager is meeting with an employee to conduct an annual performance review. The employee is very skilled in one area but weak in every other as it relates to performance. The manager gives the employee an extremely high performance review rating in lieu of this. Which of the following BEST describes the error that may have occurred during this performance review?
A. horn effect
B. central tendency
C. recentcy
D. halo effect
ANS: D
22. As the value of one variable increase, the other decreases. This is an example of a:
A. positive correlation
B. no correlation
C. negative correlation
D. standard correlation
ANS: C
23. Which OSHA standard provides guidelines for preparing an emergency action plan and includes specifications for unobstructed and continuous means of exit from any point in a building?
A. Means of Egress standard
B. Hearing Conservation standard
C. Machine Gaurding standard
D. Control of Hazardous Energy standard
ANS: A
24. The McDonnell-Douglas Corp. v. Green case established the concept of
A. adverse impact
B. employer unfair labor practices
C. reverse discrimination
D. disparate treatment
ANS: D
25. You could use the IRS 20-Factor Test to determine?
A. if an employee is non-exempt
B. whether someone is an employee or an independent contractor
C. if an employee is exempt
D. if an OSHA inspection will occur because of an accident
ANS: B
26. Which of the following best describes a strategy which increases employee satisfaction by increasing the number of tasks that an employee performs and increasing their control over those tasks?
A. Job Enlargement
B. Job Rotation
C. Horizontal Integration
D. Job Enrichment
ANS: D
27. Employment practices that are discriminatory can sometimes be justifiable. Which of the following is NOT a sufficient reason for discriminatory employment practices?
A. Business Necessity
B. Bona-fide seniority systems
C. Job Relatedness
D. Quota-based affirmative action program
ANS: B
28. Which of the following measures was NOT enacted by the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act?
A. Union must represent all employees in the bargaining unit regardless of who joined the union when a majority of employees desire the specific union.
B. Bill of rights for union members
C. Unions must not discriminate on the basis of union membership
D. Union officers must report and disclose certain financial transactions and administrative practices
ANS: A
29. Which of the following employees would be categorized as a non-exempt employee?
A. Manager at an auto mechanic shop who spends approximately 20% of his time also working on cars
B. Accountant who spends 70% of the time working on tax preparation for clients
C. Inside salesperson who spends 60% of the time performing contract administration
D. Purchasing agent who spends 60% of the time evaluating and then purchasing from bidders/ vendors
ANS: A
30. Let's assume a company is made up of 75 employees. The company provides medical benefits to all employees who work over 20 hours per week. Which of the following is NOT a required notification to full-time regular new hire employees?
A. Unemployment insurance benefits
B. Rights according to Mental Health Parity Act
C. Rights according to Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act
D. Rights according to Women's Health and Cancer Rights Act
ANS: D
31. Which one of the following offenses does NOT utilize the 'reasonable person' concept to determine whether an offense has occurred?
A. Sexual harassment
B. Constructive discharge
C. Hostile environment
D. Invasion of privacy
ANS: B
32. An employee has come forward with an allegation of quid pro quo harassment by her supervisor. As the HR manager, you are responsible for investigating the charges. The supervisor in question is someone with whom you have become quite friendly. In this case, the best person to conduct the investigation is
A. You.
B. The corporate attorney.
C. The direct manager of the accused supervisor.
D. A third party investigator.
ANS: D
33. The motivation theory that suggests people are motivated by the reward they will receive when they succeed and that they weigh the value of the expected reward against the effort required to achieve it is known as:
A. Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
B. Adams’ Equity Theory
C. McClelland’s Acquired Needs Theory
D. McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y
ANS: A
34.Which of the following is an example of a passive training method?
A. Vestibule training
B. Demonstration
C. Distance learning
D. Self-study
ANS: C
35. One purpose of a diversity initiative is to:
A. Increase workplace creativity
B. Increase the effectiveness of the workforce
C. Increase the organization’s ability to attract customers
D. All of the above
ANS: B
36. The concept that recognized businesses as social organizations as well as economic systems and recognized that productivity was related to employee job satisfaction is known as:
A. Human resource management
B. Strategic management
C. Human relations
D. Human resource development
ANS: C
37. Before selecting an HRIS system, which of the following questions should be answered?
A. What information will be converted to the HRIS?
B. Who will have access to the information stored in the HRIS?
C. How will the HRIS be accessed?
D. All of the above.
ANS: D
38. The correlation coefficient is a statistical measurement that is useful for:
A .Determining whether or not one variable affects another
B. Compensating for data that may be out of date
C. Determining which variables are outside acceptable ranges
D. Describing standards of quality
ANS: A
39. The process of identifying risks and taking steps to minimize them is referred to as:
A. Liability management
B. Risk management
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk assessment
ANS: B
40. Examples of workplace ethics issues include:
A. Workplace privacy
B. Conflicts of interest
C. Whistle-blowing
D. All of the above
ANS: D
41.Which of the following points is important to effective lobbying, that is, attempting to influence or persuade an elected official to pass, defeat, or modify a piece of legislation?
A. Learn how the legislative and political process works.
B. Begin by using persuasion to convince the elected official to accept your position.
C. Make big financial contributions.
D. Let the elected official choose a solution rather than present a proposal solution.
ANS: A
42.An HR audit is designed to help management
A. Improve employee morale.
B. Analyze HR policies, programs, and procedures against applicable legal requirements.
C. Improve HR effectiveness.
D. All of the above.
ANS: D
43.Which of the following is a productivity type of statistical HR measurement?
A. Turnover and retention
B. Cost per hire
C. Revenue per employee
D. Job satisfaction
ANS: C
44. A statement of cash flows is a financial report that tells you:
A. The financial condition of the business at a specific point in time
B. Where the money used to operate the business came from
C. The financial results of operations over a period of time
D. How much money is owed to the company by its customers
ANS: B
45. Which of the following activities is not a responsibility of the operations function of a business?
A. Designing the product
B. Scheduling production runs to coincide with customer demand
C. Ensuring that products or services meet quality standards
D. Determining what new products will be produced
ANS: D
46. A PEST analysis is used during the strategic planning process. PEST is an acronym for:
A. Political, environmental, strengths, threats
B. Political, economic, specific, timely
C. Political, economic, social, technology
D. Product, environment, social, technology
ANS: C
47. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Delphi technique?
A. It is a quantitative tool used to build consensus.
B. It is a structured meeting format.
C. The participants never meet.
D. It requires a facilitator to guide the process.
ANS: C
48. Which of the following alternative staffing methods would be most appropriate for a company with ongoing yet sporadic needs for a specific job to be done?
A. Intern program
B. On-call worker
C. Seasonal worker
D. Temp worker
ANS: B
49. A standard employment practice that seems to be fair yet results in discrimination against a protected class is a description of:
A. Disparate treatment
B. Disparate impact
C. Adverse impact
D. Unfair treatment
ANS: B
50. Measuring staffing needs against sales volume could be done most effectively by using which of the following techniques?
A. A multiple linear regression
B. A ratio
C. A simulation model
D. A simple linear regression
ANS: D
51. When an interviewer is aware that a candidate scored particularly high on an assessment test, this bias is known as the:
A. Halo effect
B. Knowledge-of-predictor effect
C. Cultural noise effect
D. Stereotyping effect
ANS: B
52. According to the WARN Act, an employer with 200 employees is required to provide 60 days’ notice of a mass layoff when:
A. The employer is seeking additional funding and will lay off 70 employees if the funding falls through.
B. A major client unexpectedly selects a new vendor for the company’s products and the company lays off 75 employees.
C. The employer lays off 5 employees a week for 3 months.
D. A flood requires that one of the plants be shut down for repairs and 55 employee are laid off.
ANS: C
53.The Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act (VEVRA) requires that
A. All contractors list all job openings with state employment agencies.
B. All employers list all job openings with state employment agencies.
State employment agencies give preference to Vietnam veterans for senior-C. level management position referrals.
D. State employment agencies give preference to Vietnam veterans for positions lasting 3 days or longer.
ANS: D
54. A high involvement organization is an example of what type of OD intervention?
A. human process
B. human resource management
C. techno-structural
D. strategic
ANS: C
55. The ______________________ seating arrangement is best for case discussions where everyone can observe each other and a trainer.
A. theater style
B. U-shaped style
C. classroom style
D. banquet style
ANS: B
56. According to the Copyright Act of 1976, which of the following is most likely to be considered a fair use of copyrighted material?
A. Distributing 30 copies of a chapter in a book to a study group
B. Copying a book for 10 staff members of a non-profit organization
C. Distributing 30 copies of a paragraph in a book to a study group
D. None of the above
ANS: C
57. A process for reducing the impact of bias during performance reviews by using multiple raters is known as:
A. Inter-rater reliability
B. An MBO review
C. A rating scale
D. Paired comparison
ANS: A
58. To increase the chances for successful repatriation of employees, the process should include:
A. Development of a qualified pool of candidates for global assignments
B. A formal repatriation program that includes career counseling
C. Setting expectations for repatriation before employees begin global assignments
D. All of the above
ANS: D
59. Total quality management focuses all employees on producing products that meet customer needs. This is done by:
A. Eliminating processes that waste time and materials
B. Developing a high level of expertise in all employees
C. Sharing information with all levels in the organization
D. Balancing the needs of all stakeholders in the organization
ANS: A
60. Which of the following is an example of a strategic OD intervention?
A. Leadership development
B. Total quality management
C. A learning organization
D. Teambuilding activities
ANS: C
61. The most effective method of performance evaluation is
A. A field review process
B. A continuous feedback process
C. A forced ranking process
D. A behaviorally anchored rating scale process
ANS: B
62. An employee earning $12,500 per year supervises three employees and spends 35 hours per week on essential job duties that require discretion and independent judgment. Is this employee:
A. Exempt, based on the short executive exemption test.
B. Exempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.
C. Nonexempt, based on the short executive exemption test.
D. Nonexempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.
ANS: C
63. As of September 1, 1997, the federal minimum wage is set at:
A. $5.15 per hour
B. $7.16 per hour
C. $5.75 per hour
D. $6.75 per hour
ANS: A
64. The FLSA requires employers to pay nonexempt employees for time spent:
A. At home while waiting to be called to work
B. At work reading a book while waiting for an assignment
C. Attending a voluntary training program
D. Commuting to work
ANS: B
65. Which of the following would be considered an extrinsic reward?
A. Challenging work on a new project
B. A 10 percent salary increase
C. A feeling of accomplishment after completing a tough assignment
D. Recognition by the CEO at a company meeting
ANS: D
66. An example of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan is
A. An excess deferral plan
B. A target benefit plan
C. A money purchase plan
D. A cash balance plan
ANS: A
67. The Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001
A. Requires pension plans to account for employee contributions separately from employer contributions.
B. Allows employers to contribute a percentage of company earnings to retirement plans each year.
C. Allows employees over 50 years old to make catch up contributions to retirement accounts.
D. Requires employer pension contributions to be funded on a quarterly basis.
ANS: C
68. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
A. Prevents HR from investigating claims issues
B. Requires continuation of health benefits
C. Established EPO networks
D. Limited preexisting condition restrictions
ANS: D
69. A target benefit plan
A. Uses actuarial formulas to calculate individual pension contribution amounts.
B. Requires an actual deferral percentage test to be performed each year.
C. Provides a means for employees to become owners of the company.
D. Uses a fixed percentage of employee earnings to defer compensation.
ANS: A
70. “Thanks for such a great presentation! You’ll always have a job with us.” This is an example of
A. The duty of good faith and fair dealing.
B. An express contract.
C. An implied contract.
D. Fraudulent misrepresentation.
ANS: B
71. A lockout occurs when
A. The employees shut down operations by refusing to work.
B. The employer refuses to allow the union to unionize the workplace.
C. The employer shuts down operations to keep employees from working.
D. The employees patrol the entrance to the business.
ANS: C
72. Which one of the following statements is true of a hostile work environment?
A. When a single incident of unwanted touching occurs a hostile work environment has been created.
B. A hostile work environment may be created when an individual witnesses the ongoing harassment of a coworker.
C. A hostile work environment can only be created by a supervisor.
D. A grievance procedure and policy against discrimination protect employers from hostile work environment claims.
ANS: B
73. An effective progressive disciplinary process begins with
A. A written warning.
B. A verbal warning.
C. A suspension.
D. Coaching or counseling.
ANS: D
74. During the union organizing process, the bargaining unit is determined
A. By the union organizers.
B. Jointly, by the union and the employer.
C. By the National Labor Relations Board.
D. By the employees during the election.
ANS: C
75. The Excelsior list is
A. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the employer to the union within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.
B. A list of the employees who do not want the union to represent them.
C. A list of the employees who have signed authorization cards for the union.
D. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the union to the employer within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.
ANS: A
76. When an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group, the most effective method to utilize would be
A. An employee survey.
B. A skip-level interview.
C. An employee focus group.
D. A brown-bag lunch.
ANS: B
77. Health and wellness programs are beneficial for employers because they:
A. Increase productivity, reduce medical costs, and attract top-quality job candidates
B. Provide nutrition counseling, exercise programs, and health education programs
C. Require employees to lose weight, stop smoking, and avoid substance abuse
D. Provide on-site opportunities for physical fitness
ANS: A
78. Which of the following statements is not true about substance abuse policies?
A. Substance abuse policies identify who will be tested.
B. Federal law requires all employers to implement substance abuse policies.
C. An effective policy describes when tests will occur and what drugs will be tested.
D. An effective policy describes what happens to employees who test positive.
ANS: B
79. According to the OSHA inspection priorities, which type of workplace hazard receives first priority for an inspection?
A. Catastrophes and Fatal Accidents
B. Programmed High-Hazard Inspections
C. Imminent Danger
D. Employee Complaints
ANS: C
80. When workplace conditions pose a threat to an unborn child, the company must:
A. Do nothing. It is up to employees to protect their unborn children.
B. Move the employee into a different job that does not pose a threat to the unborn child.
C. Advise the employee of the potential threat and allow the employee to make the decision.
D. Allow only sterile employees to work in jobs that pose a threat to unborn children.
ANS: C
81. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 grants employees the right to do all of the following except:
A. Be advised of potential safety hazards.
B. Speak privately to an OSHA inspector during an inspection.
C. Observe the employer when measuring and monitoring workplace hazards.
D. View detailed reports of all workplace accidents.
ANS: D
82. Which of the following activities does not contribute to ergonomic injuries?
A. Awkward postures
B. Extended vibrations
C. Falling down stairs
D. Contact stress
ANS: C
83. The OSHA consulting service
A. Helps employers identify the OSHA standards that apply to their workplace.
B. Fines employers for violating OSHA safety standards.
C. Does not require compliance with OSHA standards.
D. Is a one-time service.
ANS: A
84. A department manager advises you that the productivity of his data entry operators is unsatisfactory and asks you to develop a training program to improve their data entry skills. What is your first step?
A. Conduct a needs assessment.
B. Develop a lesson plan.
C. Talk to other managers to validate the situation.
D. Conduct a needs analysis.
ANS: A
85. According to the FCRA, employees must be notified of
All workplace investigations
A. Investigations that include an employee’s financial and other credit B. information
C. Third party investigations
D. Employer efforts to obtain previous employment data
ANS: C
86. Training methods that are focused on the learner are known as:
A. Experiential
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Vestibule
ANS: B
87. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs does not include the following need:
A. Social
B. Safety
C. Growth
D. Self-actualization
ANS: C
88. A female employee comes to you and complains that she is being sexually harassed by her supervisor, but she tells you not to tell anyone because she is afraid he will retaliate against her. What do you do?
A. Take no action since she told you in confidence.
B. Suspend the supervisor pending an investigation.
C. Ask her coworkers if they have noticed anything unusual.
D. Begin the investigative process.
ANS: D
89. What is the purpose of a diversity initiative?
A. To educate all employees about other groups in the workforce
B. To educate all employees about the benefits of diversity
C. To increase organizational creativity
D. To increase the comfort level of employees
ANS: B
90. Which of the following is not an appropriate use of an HRIS?
A. Tracking applicant data for the EEO-1
B. Tracking time and attendance
C. Tracking employee expense reports
D. Maintaining employee records
ANS: C
91. The middle value when values are arranged in order from high to low, is the
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Moving average
ANS: B
92. A basic principle behind job analysis is that
A The analysis focuses on the job, not the person.
B. The analysis focuses on the person doing the job, not the job.
C. The analysis is limited to task inventories and questionnaires.
D. The required qualifications should include everything the manager would like the employee to have.
ANS: A
93. After conducting a risk assessment, what should you do to reduce risks?
A .Identify policies that are applied inconsistently throughout the organization.
B. Obtain employment practices liability insurance.
C. Develop a plan to reduce the risks.
D. Present management with a plan for reducing the risks.
ANS: B
94. The first element in the strategic planning process is
A. Formulate the strategy.
B. Evaluate the strategy.
C. Scan the environment.
D. Implement the strategy.
ANS: C
95. Which of the following is not part of a SWOT analysis?
A. Technology
B. Strength
C. Opportunity
D. Weakness
ANS: A
96. A statement that describes what an organization does that is different from others is a:
A. Value statement
B. Corporate goal
C. Vision statement
D. Mission statement
ANS: D
97. When a zero-based budget process is used,
A. All proposed expenditures are based on historic trends and adjusted for inflation.
B. All proposed expenditures are controlled by senior management.
C. All proposed expenditures are based on goals and action plans.
D. All proposed expenditures are based on costs provided by operating managers.
ANS: C
98. Improvements in technology have had their greatest effect on
A. Employee morale
B. Productivity
C. Cost of living
D. Management’s span of control
ANS: B
99. The balanced scorecard concept does NOT
A. Tie objectives to specific performance measures.
B. Eliminate unnecessary processes to increase customer satisfaction.
C. Measure how objectives contribute to organization goals.
D. Set targets for meeting objectives.
ANS: B
100. Which of the following is an appropriate use for an HR audit?
A To determine which employees no longer have the skills needed by the organization.
B. To determine the employee productivity and turnover rates.
C. To determine whether the employee handbook is in compliance with current government regulations.
D. To determine the timeline for changes that are necessary in the HR department.
ANS: C
101. The four P’s summarize the marketing function. Which of the following is not one of the P’s?
A. Perception
B. Price
C. Placement
D. Promotion
ANS: A
102. Which of the following is one of the elements of a SMART goal?
A. Action-oriented
B. Strength
C. Technology
D. Threat
ANS: A
103. An organization that wants to maximize the speed and flexibility with which it is able to operate would be most likely to choose which of the following structures?
A. Functional
B. Seamless
C. Matrix
D. Geographic
ANS: B
104. ______________________ is one of several learning organization characteristics.
A. An assessment center
B. Massed practice
C. Systems thinking
D. Programmed instruction
ANS: C
105. Leadership and management styles, shared values and beliefs, and how the members of an organization behave is known as:
A Organization climate
B. Organization culture
C. Organization development
D. Total Quality Management
ANS: A
106. In the evaluation phase, the _________ evaluation method focuses on how well the training resulted in learning new skills and competencies.
A. Reaction
B. Learning
C. Behavior
D. Results
ANS: B
107. Which of the following factors can adversely affect transfer of training?
A. The trainer’s expertise
B. A lack of job reinforcement
C. The subject of the training
D. None of the above
ANS: B
108. A ____________________ learning curve begins slowly, with smaller learning increments but increases in pace and with larger increments as learning continues.
A. positively accelerating
B. negatively accelerating
C. S-shaped
D. plateau
ANS: A
109. The most common reason for the failure of organizational change initiatives is that
A. The strategic plan was not communicated to employees.
B. Organization leaders did not support the change.
C. There was no training system in place.
D. Employees were not prepared for the change.
ANS: D
110. The best quality tool to use for gathering information about a specific problem is:
A. A Pareto chart
B. An Ishikawa diagram
C. A stratification chart
D. A histogram
ANS: B
111. Which employee growth and assessment program is characterized by performance objectives?
A. Behavioral-based performance assessment
B. Skills-based performance assessment
C. Management by objectives (MBO)
D. Continuous feedback program
ANS: C
112. Which performance appraisal method would be used most effectively in a large, geographically dispersed organization with many similar jobs?
A. critical incident
B. forced ranking
C. behaviorally anchored rating system
D. field review
ANS: C
113. Mentoring involves someone
A. Who monitors an employee’s performance in doing their job.
B. Whose goal is to develop an employee in a particular area.
C. Who takes a personal interest in an individual’s career and who guides and sponsors the individual.
D. Who provides training in areas of interest to an employee.
ANS: C
114. The Federal Insurance Contributions Act requires employers to
A. Contribute to a defined benefit plan.
B. Contribute to a deferred compensation plan.
C. Withhold social security tax from pay.
D. Provide health insurance for all employees.
ANS: C
115. Employers are required to provide a portable retirement plan to employees based on
A. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
B. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
C. Older Worker Benefit Protection Act
D. Retirement benefits are not required by federal law
ANS: D
116. An example of an intrinsic reward is
A. Recognition of accomplishments
B. The satisfaction of a job well done
C. A great supervisor
D. An exciting assignment
ANS: B
117. Compensation philosophy can help achieve an organization’s strategic goals by
A. Attracting and retaining employees with the necessary KSAs
B. Establishing a pecking order for jobs within the organization
C. Positioning the company to lead the competition for employees
D. Maintaining an entitlement culture
ANS: A
118. An entitlement culture is appropriate for a business that needs a work force that
A. Continues to show productivity increases over time
B. Has line of sight to retirement
C. Is highly competitive in completing daily assignments
D. Has a skill set in high demand
ANS: A
119. A company that wants to reduce the cost of its unemployment insurance should
A. Aggressively fight unjustified claims for unemployment
B. Establish an effective performance management program
C. Retain employees who violate company policy
D. All of the above
ANS: D
120. A reduced FMLA leave schedule is one in which
A. The employee is absent from work multiple times for the same illness or injury
B. The employee works fewer hours each day or week
C. The employee’s leave schedule is disruptive to the work schedule
D. Accurate records of time off are maintained
ANS: B
121. The Older Worker Benefit Protection Act requires that an employee over 40 years of age who is asked to waive their rights under the act must be given
A. 7 days to consider the agreement before signing it
B. 21 days to consider the agreement before signing it
C. 5 days to consider the agreement before signing it
D. 60 days to consider the agreement before signing it
ANS: B
122. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993 does not require that
A. Group health coverage be offered for children placed for adoption before the adoption is final
B. Group health plans honor qualified medical child support orders
C. Tax deductions for executive pay be capped at $1,000,000 per year
D. Income tax be withheld from some distributions to rollover accounts
ANS: D
123. A summary plan description is required all of the following except
A. Defined contribution plans
B. Defined benefit plans
C. Flexible spending accounts
D. AD&D insurance
ANS: D
124. A supervisor has called an employee in for a interview about an inventory shortage. When the supervisor begins asking questions, the employee invokes his Weingarten rights. The supervisor has the option to
A. Stop the discussion while the employee calls an attorney.
B. Stop the discussion until a coworker is available upon return from vacation in 4 days.
C. Discontinue the interview and make the determination based on other evidence and documentation.
D. Continue the interview while waiting for the coworker to return from lunch.
ANS: C
125. An employee has resigned and during the exit interview tells HR that the reason for the resignation is that for the last three months the supervisor has been hostile, refused to provide instructions on work assignments, given the employee all of the most unpleasant tasks in the department, and verbally reprimanded the employee in front of coworkers and customers. The employee may have a cause of legal action based on
A. The employer’s duty of good faith and fair dealing
B. Constructive discharge
C. Promissory estoppel
D. Fraudulent misrepresentation
ANS: B
126. All of the following statements about employment at-will are true except:
A. The employer may terminate the employee at any time for any reason.
B. The employee may resign at any time, with or without notice.
C. The employer may terminate the employee for cooperating with an SEC investigation.
D. The employer may withdraw an offer of employment after the employee has accepted the position and resigned another job.
ANS: C
127. During a unionizing campaign, management may do the following in response to union allegations:
A. Point out the consequences of unionization based on past facts.
B. Encourage nonunion employees to talk about the reasons they don’t want the union.
C. Tell employees the company will have to move the jobs to another country if the union is elected.
D. Ask employees what the union is saying about the company.
ANS: A
128. As a result of the Sturgis case,
A. Temporary employees may only form a union and bargain with the temp agency.
B. The temporary agency must agree to bargain with a client company’s union.
C. Temporary employees who work side-by-side with regular employees may be part of the bargaining unit.
D. Temporary employees may not be unionized.
ANS: C
129. If employees no longer want the union to represent them, they may petition the NLRB for
A. Decertification
B. Deauthorization
C. Contract bar
D. Statutory bar
ANS: A
130. A union security clause that requires all employees to join the union after they are hired is
A. An agency shop clause
B. A union shop clause
C. A closed shop clause
D. A maintenance of membership clause
ANS: B
131. Double breasting occurs when
A. An employer has two companies that are substantially identical.
B. A neutral employer performs work that is normally done by striking employees.
C. An employer has two businesses, one union and one nonunion, that do substantially the same work but have different management, equipment, and customers.
D. Two businesses perform operations that are part of the same product.
ANS: C
132. During a representation election, votes may be challenged
A. By management or the union at any time
B. By management or the union before the votes are counted
C. By management only
D. By the union only
ANS: B
133. Salting is a practice in which
A. The union hires an individual to publicize its reasons for targeting an employer for unionization.
B. The union hires an individual to distribute leaflets to employees as they are leaving work at the end of the day.
C. The union hires an individual to picket the employer’s business.
D. The union hires an individual to apply for a job with an employer and begin to organize the company.
ANS: D
134. An OSHA violation with substantial probability of death or serious physical harm as the result of a workplace hazard is
A. Willful
B. Serious
C. Repeat
D. De-minimus
ANS: B
135. Under OSHA regulations, employers do not have the right to
A. Refuse to allow an OSHA inspector on the premises.
B. Request a variance to an OSHA standard while waiting for repairs.
C. Consult with OSHA to correct hazards without fear of a citation and penalty.
D. File a Notice of Contest within 30 days of the citation.
ANS: D
136. What is the best way to ensure that employees comply with the Drug-Free Workplace Act?
A. Develop and publish a written policy.
B. Notify employees about contract conditions.
C. Establish penalties for drug arrests.
D. Establish an awareness program.
ANS: A
137. The 16-year-old son of one of your friends is looking for a summer job and has been offered a job at a coal mine. Which law makes this illegal?
A. Mine Safety and Health Act
B. Occupational Safety and Health Act
C. Fair Labor Standards Acts
D. Hazard Communication
ANS: C
138. The company receptionist has always been cheerful and warm when greeting customers and has taken the initiative to do what needed to be done without waiting to be told. She’s always kept the front desk tidy and presentable for visitors. Over the last few weeks, the receptionist has become moody and called in sick several times complaining of headaches, and the reception area looks disorganized all the time. This receptionist is showing classic signs of
A. Stress
B. Job dissatisfaction
C. Substance abuse
D. SARS
ANS: A
139. The union rep has requested copies of all of the incident reports filed during the last year. You are required to
A. Furnish the copies by the end of the day.
B. Furnish copies within 15 calendar days, but only of the “Tell Us About the Case” section.
C. Furnish the copies by the end of the next business day.
D. Furnish copies within 7 calendar days, but only of the “Tell Us About the Case” section.
ANS: D
140. An employee assistance plan will not assist employees with
A. Outplacement counseling
B. Substance abuse
C. Gambling problems
D. Legal assistance
ANS: C
141. Which of the following injuries or illnesses is considered work-related?
A. An employee has twisted an ankle at an aerobics class the company sponsored.
B. An employee fell while taking a shower at work.
C. An employee is hit by a car in the parking lot while walking into the building.
D. An employee disregards the safety procedures and is cut by a table saw.
ANS: D
142. An effective Safety and Health Management Plan does not include:
A. Senior management support
B. Ongoing worksite analysis
C. Regular OSHA inspections
D. Active hazard prevention program
ANS: C
143. How can an employer determine if a job creates an ergonomic hazard for an employee?
A. Review and analyze the OSHA logs.
B. Review and analyze the worker compensation records.
C. Review the MSDS.
D. Observe the incumbent performing the job duties.
ANS: D
144. An applicant who was previously fired for misconduct by another employer does not list that employment experience on the application form and is subsequently hired. One month later, this omission is discovered. How should this situation be handled?
A. The incident should be overlooked and considered a casual omission.
B. The employee should receive a written disciplinary letter about the omission.
C. The employee should be fired for falsification of the application.
D. The previous employer should be contacted to determine the cause of the prior dismissal.
ANS: C
145. A performance appraisal approach that best meets EEO guidelines is one that is oriented to:
A. Job content.
B. General job characteristics.
C. The traits of the person in the job.
D. Using the same criteria for all positions.
ANS: A
146. Which of the following would least likely occur with the implementation of a cafeteria-style benefits program?
A. Reduced turnover
B. Less wasted or unused benefits
C. Reduced administrative costs
D. Increased employee understanding of benefit costs
ANS: C.
147. Job enrichment and job enlargement are two means of enhancing jobs through job design. What is the basic difference between the two techniques?
A. Enriching a job involves adding more tasks to an existing job while enlarging a job involves adding more responsibilities.
B. Enlarging a job indicates an increased rate of pay will accompany the new job responsibilities.
C. Enlarging a job involves adding more tasks at the same level while enriching a job involves adding more responsibilities.
D. The two terms mean the same, there is no basic difference between them.
ANS: C
148. The future demand for employees is essentially derived from the anticipated:
A. supply of external employees
B. demand for the organization's products and/or services
C. competitive forces in the labor market
D. changes in federal legislation
ANS: B
149. Collective bargaining issues that fall within the NLRA's definition of wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment are classified as what type of issues?
A. mandatory
B. permissive
C. voluntary
D. prohibited
ANS: A
150. In a firm's training and development program, the trainee must believe that improved skills will lead to desired outcomes and that efforts in the training program will result in improved skills. These assumptions are related to which motivation theory?
A. expectancy theory
B. reinforcement theory
C. motivation-hygiene theory
D. equity theory
ANS: A
151. Upon what piece of federal legislation are labor laws primarily based?
A. The Norris-LaGuardia Act
B. The Walsh-Healey Act
C. The Davis-Bacon Act
D. The Wagner Act
ANS: D
152. What is the primary advantage for an employer to provide vesting in its profit sharing program on a gradual basis?
A. Reduces cost
B. Encourages interest in the plan
C. Improves employee morale
D. Reduces turnover
ANS: D
153. When regression analysis is used in human resource research, a potential dependent variable might be:
A. biographical data
B. personal goals
C. length of employment
D. test scores
ANS: C
154. A high involvement organization is an example of what type of OD intervention?
A. human process
B. human resource management
C. techno-structural
D. strategic
ANS: C
155. The ______________________ seating arrangement is best for case discussions where everyone can observe each other and a trainer.
A. theater style
B. U-shaped style
C. classroom style
D. banquet style
ANS: B
156. According to the Copyright Act of 1976, which of the following is most likely to be considered a fair use of copyrighted material?
A. Distributing 30 copies of a chapter in a book to a study group
B. Copying a book for 10 staff members of a non-profit organization
C. Distributing 30 copies of a paragraph in a book to a study group
D. None of the above
ANS: C
157. A process for reducing the impact of bias during performance reviews by using multiple raters is known as:
A. Inter-rater reliability
B. An MBO review
C. A rating scale
D. Paired comparison
ANS: A
158. To increase the chances for successful repatriation of employees, the process should include:
A. Development of a qualified pool of candidates for global assignments
B. A formal repatriation program that includes career counseling
C. Setting expectations for repatriation before employees begin global assignments
D. All of the above
ANS: D
159. Total quality management focuses all employees on producing products that meet customer needs. This is done by:
A. Eliminating processes that waste time and materials
B. Developing a high level of expertise in all employees
C. Sharing information with all levels in the organization
D. Balancing the needs of all stakeholders in the organization
ANS: A
160. Which of the following is an example of a strategic OD intervention?
A. Leadership development
B. Total quality management
C. A learning organization
D. Teambuilding activities
ANS: C
161. The most effective method of performance evaluation is
A. A field review process
B. A continuous feedback process
C. A forced ranking process
D. A behaviorally anchored rating scale process
ANS: B
162. An employee earning $12,500 per year supervises three employees and spends 35 hours per week on essential job duties that require discretion and independent judgment. Is this employee:
A. Exempt, based on the short executive exemption test.
B. Exempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.
C. Nonexempt, based on the short executive exemption test.
D. Nonexempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.
ANS: C
163. As of September 1, 1997, the federal minimum wage is set at:
A. $5.15 per hour
B. $7.16 per hour
C. $5.75 per hour
D. $6.75 per hour
ANS: A
164. The FLSA requires employers to pay nonexempt employees for time spent:
A. At home while waiting to be called to work
B. At work reading a book while waiting for an assignment
C. Attending a voluntary training program
D. Commuting to work
ANS: B
165. Which of the following would be considered an extrinsic reward?
A. Challenging work on a new project
B. A 10 percent salary increase
C. A feeling of accomplishment after completing a tough assignment
D. Recognition by the CEO at a company meeting
ANS: D
166. An example of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan is
A. An excess deferral plan
B. A target benefit plan
C. A money purchase plan
D. A cash balance plan
ANS: A
167. The Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001
A. Requires pension plans to account for employee contributions separately from employer contributions.
B. Allows employers to contribute a percentage of company earnings to retirement plans each year.
C. Allows employees over 50 years old to make catch up contributions to retirement accounts.
D. Requires employer pension contributions to be funded on a quarterly basis.
ANS: C
168. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
A. Prevents HR from investigating claims issues
B. Requires continuation of health benefits
C. Established EPO networks
D. Limited preexisting condition restrictions
ANS: D
169. A target benefit plan
A. Uses actuarial formulas to calculate individual pension contribution amounts.
B. Requires an actual deferral percentage test to be performed each year.
C. Provides a means for employees to become owners of the company.
D. Uses a fixed percentage of employee earnings to defer compensation.
ANS: A
170. “Thanks for such a great presentation! You’ll always have a job with us.” This is an example of
A. The duty of good faith and fair dealing.
B. An express contract.
C. An implied contract.
D. Fraudulent misrepresentation.
ANS: B
171. A lockout occurs when
A. The employees shut down operations by refusing to work.
B. The employer refuses to allow the union to unionize the workplace.
C. The employer shuts down operations to keep employees from working.
D. The employees patrol the entrance to the business.
ANS: C
172. Which one of the following statements is true of a hostile work environment?
A. When a single incident of unwanted touching occurs a hostile work environment has been created.
B. A hostile work environment may be created when an individual witnesses the ongoing harassment of a coworker.
C. A hostile work environment can only be created by a supervisor.
D. A grievance procedure and policy against discrimination protect employers from hostile work environment claims.
ANS: B
173. An effective progressive disciplinary process begins with
A. A written warning.
B. A verbal warning.
C. A suspension.
D. Coaching or counseling.
ANS: D
174. During the union organizing process, the bargaining unit is determined
A. By the union organizers.
B. Jointly, by the union and the employer.
C. By the National Labor Relations Board.
D. By the employees during the election.
ANS: C
175. The Excelsior list is
A. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the employer to the union within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.
B. A list of the employees who do not want the union to represent them.
C. A list of the employees who have signed authorization cards for the union.
D. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the union to the employer within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.
ANS: A
176. When an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group, the most effective method to utilize would be
A. An employee survey.
B. A skip-level interview.
C. An employee focus group.
D. A brown-bag lunch.
ANS: B
177. Health and wellness programs are beneficial for employers because they:
A. Increase productivity, reduce medical costs, and attract top-quality job candidates
B. Provide nutrition counseling, exercise programs, and health education programs
C. Require employees to lose weight, stop smoking, and avoid substance abuse
D. Provide on-site opportunities for physical fitness
ANS: A
178. Which of the following statements is not true about substance abuse policies?
A. Substance abuse policies identify who will be tested.
B. Federal law requires all employers to implement substance abuse policies.
C. An effective policy describes when tests will occur and what drugs will be tested.
D. An effective policy describes what happens to employees who test positive.
ANS: B
179. According to the OSHA inspection priorities, which type of workplace hazard receives first priority for an inspection?
A. Catastrophes and Fatal Accidents
B. Programmed High-Hazard Inspections
C. Imminent Danger
D. Employee Complaints
ANS: C
180. When workplace conditions pose a threat to an unborn child, the company must:
A. Do nothing. It is up to employees to protect their unborn children.
B. Move the employee into a different job that does not pose a threat to the unborn child.
C. Advise the employee of the potential threat and allow the employee to make the decision.
D. Allow only sterile employees to work in jobs that pose a threat to unborn children.
ANS: C
181. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 grants employees the right to do all of the following except:
A. Be advised of potential safety hazards.
B. Speak privately to an OSHA inspector during an inspection.
C. Observe the employer when measuring and monitoring workplace hazards.
D. View detailed reports of all workplace accidents.
ANS: D
182. Which of the following activities does not contribute to ergonomic injuries?
A. Awkward postures
B. Extended vibrations
C. Falling down stairs
D. Contact stress
ANS: C
183. The OSHA consulting service
A. Helps employers identify the OSHA standards that apply to their workplace.
B. Fines employers for violating OSHA safety standards.
C. Does not require compliance with OSHA standards.
D. Is a one-time service.
ANS: A
184. A department manager advises you that the productivity of his data entry operators is unsatisfactory and asks you to develop a training program to improve their data entry skills. What is your first step?
A. Conduct a needs assessment.
B. Develop a lesson plan.
C. Talk to other managers to validate the situation.
D. Conduct a needs analysis.
ANS: A
185. According to the FCRA, employees must be notified of
All workplace investigations
A. Investigations that include an employee’s financial and other credit B. information
C. Third party investigations
D. Employer efforts to obtain previous employment data
ANS: C
186. Training methods that are focused on the learner are known as:
A. Experiential
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Vestibule
ANS: B
187. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs does not include the following need:
A. Social
B. Safety
C. Growth
D. Self-actualization
ANS: C
188. A female employee comes to you and complains that she is being sexually harassed by her supervisor, but she tells you not to tell anyone because she is afraid he will retaliate against her. What do you do?
A. Take no action since she told you in confidence.
B. Suspend the supervisor pending an investigation.
C. Ask her coworkers if they have noticed anything unusual.
D. Begin the investigative process.
ANS: D
189. What is the purpose of a diversity initiative?
A. To educate all employees about other groups in the workforce
B. To educate all employees about the benefits of diversity
C. To increase organizational creativity
D. To increase the comfort level of employees
ANS: B
190. Which of the following is not an appropriate use of an HRIS?
A. Tracking applicant data for the EEO-1
B. Tracking time and attendance
C. Tracking employee expense reports
D. Maintaining employee records
ANS: C
191. The middle value when values are arranged in order from high to low, is the
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Moving average
ANS: B
192. A basic principle behind job analysis is that
A The analysis focuses on the job, not the person.
B. The analysis focuses on the person doing the job, not the job.
C. The analysis is limited to task inventories and questionnaires.
D. The required qualifications should include everything the manager would like the employee to have.
ANS: A
193. After conducting a risk assessment, what should you do to reduce risks?
A .Identify policies that are applied inconsistently throughout the organization.
B. Obtain employment practices liability insurance.
C. Develop a plan to reduce the risks.
D. Present management with a plan for reducing the risks.
ANS: B
194. The first element in the strategic planning process is
A. Formulate the strategy.
B. Evaluate the strategy.
C. Scan the environment.
D. Implement the strategy.
ANS: C
195. Which of the following is not part of a SWOT analysis?
A. Technology
B. Strength
C. Opportunity
D. Weakness
ANS: A
196. A statement that describes what an organization does that is different from others is a:
A. Value statement
B. Corporate goal
C. Vision statement
D. Mission statement
ANS: D
197. When a zero-based budget process is used,
A. All proposed expenditures are based on historic trends and adjusted for inflation.
B. All proposed expenditures are controlled by senior management.
C. All proposed expenditures are based on goals and action plans.
D. All proposed expenditures are based on costs provided by operating managers.
ANS: C
198. Improvements in technology have had their greatest effect on
A. Employee morale
B. Productivity
C. Cost of living
D. Management’s span of control
ANS: B
199. The balanced scorecard concept does NOT
A. Tie objectives to specific performance measures.
B. Eliminate unnecessary processes to increase customer satisfaction.
C. Measure how objectives contribute to organization goals.
D. Set targets for meeting objectives.
ANS: B
200. Which of the following is an appropriate use for an HR audit?
A To determine which employees no longer have the skills needed by the organization.
B. To determine the employee productivity and turnover rates.
C. To determine whether the employee handbook is in compliance with current government regulations.
D. To determine the timeline for changes that are necessary in the HR department.
ANS: C
201. An EEO-I must be filed if ___ employees are working for an individual company.
A. 15
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
ANS: D
202. The Fair Labor Standards Act allows employees to recover pay up to __ years of back pay.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANS: B
203. Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-evaluations?
A. Tendency to inflate ratings due to self-serving bias.
B. Tendency to inflate ratings due to blind spots.
C. Women and nonwhites tend to rate themselves lower.
D. Majority will show a tendency of show poor differentiation of skills.
ANS: D
204. Which of the following is not a guideline for reducing perceptual factors?
A. Recognize external causes of behavior.
B. Be aware of stereotypes, biases and assumptions.
C. Emphasize objective information.
D. Increase customer awareness.
ANS: D
205. Which of the following is not a strategy for improving decision making?
A. Ask lots of questions.
B. Learn from prior decisions.
C. Prioritize decisions into short-term and long-term priorities.
D. Never use the Plan-Do-Check-Act Cycle of decision making.
ANS: D
206. Which of the following is matches the definition, a system in which unions and management negotiate with each other to develop the work rules under which union members will work for a stipulated period of time?
A. Union steward exchange
B. Team building
C. Collective bargaining
D. Break-even analysis
ANS: C
207. Which of the following is another name for an Ishikawa diagram?
A. Cause and Effect Diagram
B. Bell Curve
C. Pareto Diagram
D. Trend Analysis
ANS: A
208. The acronym CPPC stands for?
A. Cost Plus Percentage of Control
B. Cost Plus Percentage of Contract
C. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
D. Cost Plus Cost
ANS: C
209. Which of the following is not considered part of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
A. Social needs
B. Safety
C. Motivation
D. Self-actualization
ANS: C
210. Parento diagrams work on the ___ rule.
A. 50/50
B. 60/40
C. 80/20
D. 90/10
ANS: C
211. Which of the following is not a characteristic of The FISH Philosophy?
A. Play
B. Make Their Day
C. Be There
D. Strategy culture
ANS: D
212. Which of the following is not a characteristic of stress in the workplace?
A. 43% of all adults suffer adverse effects from stress.
B. Stress management techniques increase employee negligence.
C. 75-90% of all physician office visits are for stress-related ailments.
D. Stress costs U.S. industry more than $300 billion dollars per year, or $7,500 per worker.
ANS: B
213. Which of the following is the correct formula for turnover rates according to the Department of Labor?
A. (Number of Terminations x 100)/(Avg. Number of Employees)
B. (Number of Terminations x 10/(Avg. Number of Employees)
C. (Avg. Number of Employees)/(Number of Terminations)
D. (Avg. Number of Employees)/(Number of Terminations x 10)
ANS: A
214. Which of the following occurs if an employee comes to work with an inappropriate dress length and is then promptly sent home to change clothes?
A. Punishment
B. Extinction
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Negative reinforcement
ANS: A
215. If an employee is earning a pay rate that is excessive compared to their counterparts of equal ability, their pay rate may be identified as a/an ____ rate.
A. Green circle
B. Evaluation
C. Red circle
D. Bandwidth
ANS: C
216. The Griggs v. Duke Power case created the judicial concept of
A. adverse treatment
B. disparate treatment
C. adverse impact
D. sexual discrimination
ANS: c
217. How many weeks of unpaid leave must an employer let an employee take under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)?
A. 6 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 12 weeks
ANS: D
218. Which of the following is NOT considered a human process intervention?
A. leadership development
B. redesigning jobs
C. teambuilding exercises
D. conflict resolution
ANS: B
219. What is the first step the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) will take when there is a complaint of alleged discrimination?
A. the EEOC will review the charges to see if they have jurisdiction
B. the EEOC will issue a "right to sue" notice to the complainant
C. the EEOC will send a letter to the employer informing them that a D. complaint has been filed
the EEOC determines whether or not there is "reasonable" cause
ANS: C
220. Which term describes when a business owner operates both a union organization and a non-union organization?
A .yellow-dog contract
B. double-breasting
C. common situs
D. coordinated bargaining
ANS: B
221. A manager is meeting with an employee to conduct an annual performance review. The employee is very skilled in one area but weak in every other as it relates to performance. The manager gives the employee an extremely high performance review rating in lieu of this. Which of the following BEST describes the error that may have occurred during this performance review?
A. horn effect
B. central tendency
C. recently
D. halo effect
ANS: D
222. As the value of one variable increase, the other decreases. This is an example of a:
A. positive correlation
B. no correlation
C. negative correlation
D. standard correlation
ANS: C
223. Which OSHA standard provides guidelines for preparing an emergency action plan and includes specifications for unobstructed and continuous means of exit from any point in a building?
A. Means of Egress standard
B. Hearing Conservation standard
C. Machine Guarding standard
D. Control of Hazardous Energy standard
ANS: A
224. The McDonnell-Douglas Corp. v. Green case established the concept of
A. adverse impact
B. employer unfair labor practices
C. reverse discrimination
D. disparate treatment
ANS: D
225. You could use the IRS 20-Factor Test to determine?
A. if an employee is non-exempt
B. whether someone is an employee or an independent contractor
C. if an employee is exempt
D. if an OSHA inspection will occur because of an accident
ANS: B
PHR & SPHR
More than 200 Questions & Answers for Review:
1. An EEO-I must be filed if ___ employees are working for an individual company.
A. 15
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
ANS: D
2. The Fair Labor Standards Act allows employees to recover pay up to __ years of back pay.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANS: B
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-evaluations?
A. Tendency to inflate ratings due to self-serving bias.
B. Tendency to inflate ratings due to blind spots.
C. Women and nonwhites tend to rate themselves lower.
D. Majority will show a tendency of show poor differentiation of skills.
ANS: D
4. Which of the following is not a guideline for reducing perceptual factors?
A. Recognize external causes of behavior.
B. Be aware of stereotypes, biases and assumptions.
C. Emphasize objective information.
D. Increase customer awareness.
ANS: D
5. Which of the following is not a strategy for improving decision making?
A. Ask lots of questions.
B. Learn from prior decisions.
C. Prioritize decisions into short-term and long-term priorities.
D. Never use the Plan-Do-Check-Act Cycle of decision making.
ANS: D
6. Which of the following is matches the definition, a system in which unions and management negotiate with each other to develop the work rules under which union members will work for a stipulated period of time?
A. Union steward exchange
B. Team building
C. Collective bargaining
D. Break-even analysis
ANS: C
7. Which of the following is another name for an Ishikawa diagram?
A. Cause and Effect Diagram
B. Bell Curve
C. Pareto Diagram
D. Trend Analysis
ANS: A
8. The acronym CPPC stands for?
A. Cost Plus Percentage of Control
B. Cost Plus Percentage of Contract
C. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
D. Cost Plus Cost
ANS: C
9. Which of the following is not considered part of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
A. Social needs
B. Safety
C. Motivation
D. Self-actualization
ANS: C
10. Parento diagrams work on the ___ rule.
A. 50/50
B. 60/40
C. 80/20
D. 90/10
ANS: C
11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of The FISH Philosophy?
A. Play
B. Make Their Day
C. Be There
D. Strategy culture
ANS: D
12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of stress in the workplace?
A. 43% of all adults suffer adverse effects from stress.
B. Stress management techniques increase employee negligence.
C. 75-90% of all physician office visits are for stress-related ailments.
D. Stress costs U.S. industry more than $300 billion dollars per year, or $7,500 per worker.
ANS: B
13. Which of the following is the correct formula for turnover rates according to the Department of Labor?
A. (Number of Terminations x 100)/(Avg. Number of Employees)
B. (Number of Terminations x 10/(Avg. Number of Employees)
C. (Avg. Number of Employees)/(Number of Terminations)
D. (Avg. Number of Employees)/(Number of Terminations x 10)
ANS: A
14. Which of the following occurs if an employee comes to work with an inappropriate dress length and is then promptly sent home to change clothes?
A. Punishment
B. Extinction
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Negative reinforcement
ANS: A
15. If an employee is earning a pay rate that is excessive compared to their counterparts of equal ability, their pay rate may be identified as a/an ____ rate.
A. Green circle
B. Evaluation
C. Red circle
D. Bandwidth
ANS: C
16. The Griggs v. Duke Power case created the judicial concept of
A. adverse treatment
B. disparate treatment
C. adverse impact
D. sexual discrimination
ANS: c
17. How many weeks of unpaid leave must an employer let an employee take under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)?
A. 6 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 12 weeks
ANS: D
18. Which of the following is NOT considered a human process intervention?
A. leadership development
B. redesigning jobs
C. teambuilding exercises
D. conflict resolution
ANS: B
19. What is the first step the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) will take when there is a complaint of alleged discrimination?
A. the EEOC will review the charges to see if they have jurisdiction
B. the EEOC will issue a "right to sue" notice to the complainant
C. the EEOC will send a letter to the employer informing them that a D. complaint has been filed
the EEOC determines whether or not there is "reasonable" cause
ANS: C
20. Which term describes when a business owner operates both a union organization and a non-union organization?
A .yellow-dog contract
B. double-breasting
C. common situs
D. coordinated bargaining
ANS: B
21. A manager is meeting with an employee to conduct an annual performance review. The employee is very skilled in one area but weak in every other as it relates to performance. The manager gives the employee an extremely high performance review rating in lieu of this. Which of the following BEST describes the error that may have occurred during this performance review?
A. horn effect
B. central tendency
C. recentcy
D. halo effect
ANS: D
22. As the value of one variable increase, the other decreases. This is an example of a:
A. positive correlation
B. no correlation
C. negative correlation
D. standard correlation
ANS: C
23. Which OSHA standard provides guidelines for preparing an emergency action plan and includes specifications for unobstructed and continuous means of exit from any point in a building?
A. Means of Egress standard
B. Hearing Conservation standard
C. Machine Gaurding standard
D. Control of Hazardous Energy standard
ANS: A
24. The McDonnell-Douglas Corp. v. Green case established the concept of
A. adverse impact
B. employer unfair labor practices
C. reverse discrimination
D. disparate treatment
ANS: D
25. You could use the IRS 20-Factor Test to determine?
A. if an employee is non-exempt
B. whether someone is an employee or an independent contractor
C. if an employee is exempt
D. if an OSHA inspection will occur because of an accident
ANS: B
26. Which of the following best describes a strategy which increases employee satisfaction by increasing the number of tasks that an employee performs and increasing their control over those tasks?
A. Job Enlargement
B. Job Rotation
C. Horizontal Integration
D. Job Enrichment
ANS: D
27. Employment practices that are discriminatory can sometimes be justifiable. Which of the following is NOT a sufficient reason for discriminatory employment practices?
A. Business Necessity
B. Bona-fide seniority systems
C. Job Relatedness
D. Quota-based affirmative action program
ANS: B
28. Which of the following measures was NOT enacted by the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act?
A. Union must represent all employees in the bargaining unit regardless of who joined the union when a majority of employees desire the specific union.
B. Bill of rights for union members
C. Unions must not discriminate on the basis of union membership
D. Union officers must report and disclose certain financial transactions and administrative practices
ANS: A
29. Which of the following employees would be categorized as a non-exempt employee?
A. Manager at an auto mechanic shop who spends approximately 20% of his time also working on cars
B. Accountant who spends 70% of the time working on tax preparation for clients
C. Inside salesperson who spends 60% of the time performing contract administration
D. Purchasing agent who spends 60% of the time evaluating and then purchasing from bidders/ vendors
ANS: A
30. Let's assume a company is made up of 75 employees. The company provides medical benefits to all employees who work over 20 hours per week. Which of the following is NOT a required notification to full-time regular new hire employees?
A. Unemployment insurance benefits
B. Rights according to Mental Health Parity Act
C. Rights according to Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act
D. Rights according to Women's Health and Cancer Rights Act
ANS: D
31. Which one of the following offenses does NOT utilize the 'reasonable person' concept to determine whether an offense has occurred?
A. Sexual harassment
B. Constructive discharge
C. Hostile environment
D. Invasion of privacy
ANS: B
32. An employee has come forward with an allegation of quid pro quo harassment by her supervisor. As the HR manager, you are responsible for investigating the charges. The supervisor in question is someone with whom you have become quite friendly. In this case, the best person to conduct the investigation is
A. You.
B. The corporate attorney.
C. The direct manager of the accused supervisor.
D. A third party investigator.
ANS: D
33. The motivation theory that suggests people are motivated by the reward they will receive when they succeed and that they weigh the value of the expected reward against the effort required to achieve it is known as:
A. Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
B. Adams’ Equity Theory
C. McClelland’s Acquired Needs Theory
D. McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y
ANS: A
34.Which of the following is an example of a passive training method?
A. Vestibule training
B. Demonstration
C. Distance learning
D. Self-study
ANS: C
35. One purpose of a diversity initiative is to:
A. Increase workplace creativity
B. Increase the effectiveness of the workforce
C. Increase the organization’s ability to attract customers
D. All of the above
ANS: B
36. The concept that recognized businesses as social organizations as well as economic systems and recognized that productivity was related to employee job satisfaction is known as:
A. Human resource management
B. Strategic management
C. Human relations
D. Human resource development
ANS: C
37. Before selecting an HRIS system, which of the following questions should be answered?
A. What information will be converted to the HRIS?
B. Who will have access to the information stored in the HRIS?
C. How will the HRIS be accessed?
D. All of the above.
ANS: D
38. The correlation coefficient is a statistical measurement that is useful for:
A .Determining whether or not one variable affects another
B. Compensating for data that may be out of date
C. Determining which variables are outside acceptable ranges
D. Describing standards of quality
ANS: A
39. The process of identifying risks and taking steps to minimize them is referred to as:
A. Liability management
B. Risk management
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk assessment
ANS: B
40. Examples of workplace ethics issues include:
A. Workplace privacy
B. Conflicts of interest
C. Whistle-blowing
D. All of the above
ANS: D
41.Which of the following points is important to effective lobbying, that is, attempting to influence or persuade an elected official to pass, defeat, or modify a piece of legislation?
A. Learn how the legislative and political process works.
B. Begin by using persuasion to convince the elected official to accept your position.
C. Make big financial contributions.
D. Let the elected official choose a solution rather than present a proposal solution.
ANS: A
42.An HR audit is designed to help management
A. Improve employee morale.
B. Analyze HR policies, programs, and procedures against applicable legal requirements.
C. Improve HR effectiveness.
D. All of the above.
ANS: D
43.Which of the following is a productivity type of statistical HR measurement?
A. Turnover and retention
B. Cost per hire
C. Revenue per employee
D. Job satisfaction
ANS: C
44. A statement of cash flows is a financial report that tells you:
A. The financial condition of the business at a specific point in time
B. Where the money used to operate the business came from
C. The financial results of operations over a period of time
D. How much money is owed to the company by its customers
ANS: B
45. Which of the following activities is not a responsibility of the operations function of a business?
A. Designing the product
B. Scheduling production runs to coincide with customer demand
C. Ensuring that products or services meet quality standards
D. Determining what new products will be produced
ANS: D
46. A PEST analysis is used during the strategic planning process. PEST is an acronym for:
A. Political, environmental, strengths, threats
B. Political, economic, specific, timely
C. Political, economic, social, technology
D. Product, environment, social, technology
ANS: C
47. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Delphi technique?
A. It is a quantitative tool used to build consensus.
B. It is a structured meeting format.
C. The participants never meet.
D. It requires a facilitator to guide the process.
ANS: C
48. Which of the following alternative staffing methods would be most appropriate for a company with ongoing yet sporadic needs for a specific job to be done?
A. Intern program
B. On-call worker
C. Seasonal worker
D. Temp worker
ANS: B
49. A standard employment practice that seems to be fair yet results in discrimination against a protected class is a description of:
A. Disparate treatment
B. Disparate impact
C. Adverse impact
D. Unfair treatment
ANS: B
50. Measuring staffing needs against sales volume could be done most effectively by using which of the following techniques?
A. A multiple linear regression
B. A ratio
C. A simulation model
D. A simple linear regression
ANS: D
51. When an interviewer is aware that a candidate scored particularly high on an assessment test, this bias is known as the:
A. Halo effect
B. Knowledge-of-predictor effect
C. Cultural noise effect
D. Stereotyping effect
ANS: B
52. According to the WARN Act, an employer with 200 employees is required to provide 60 days’ notice of a mass layoff when:
A. The employer is seeking additional funding and will lay off 70 employees if the funding falls through.
B. A major client unexpectedly selects a new vendor for the company’s products and the company lays off 75 employees.
C. The employer lays off 5 employees a week for 3 months.
D. A flood requires that one of the plants be shut down for repairs and 55 employee are laid off.
ANS: C
53.The Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act (VEVRA) requires that
A. All contractors list all job openings with state employment agencies.
B. All employers list all job openings with state employment agencies.
State employment agencies give preference to Vietnam veterans for senior-C. level management position referrals.
D. State employment agencies give preference to Vietnam veterans for positions lasting 3 days or longer.
ANS: D
54. A high involvement organization is an example of what type of OD intervention?
A. human process
B. human resource management
C. techno-structural
D. strategic
ANS: C
55. The ______________________ seating arrangement is best for case discussions where everyone can observe each other and a trainer.
A. theater style
B. U-shaped style
C. classroom style
D. banquet style
ANS: B
56. According to the Copyright Act of 1976, which of the following is most likely to be considered a fair use of copyrighted material?
A. Distributing 30 copies of a chapter in a book to a study group
B. Copying a book for 10 staff members of a non-profit organization
C. Distributing 30 copies of a paragraph in a book to a study group
D. None of the above
ANS: C
57. A process for reducing the impact of bias during performance reviews by using multiple raters is known as:
A. Inter-rater reliability
B. An MBO review
C. A rating scale
D. Paired comparison
ANS: A
58. To increase the chances for successful repatriation of employees, the process should include:
A. Development of a qualified pool of candidates for global assignments
B. A formal repatriation program that includes career counseling
C. Setting expectations for repatriation before employees begin global assignments
D. All of the above
ANS: D
59. Total quality management focuses all employees on producing products that meet customer needs. This is done by:
A. Eliminating processes that waste time and materials
B. Developing a high level of expertise in all employees
C. Sharing information with all levels in the organization
D. Balancing the needs of all stakeholders in the organization
ANS: A
60. Which of the following is an example of a strategic OD intervention?
A. Leadership development
B. Total quality management
C. A learning organization
D. Teambuilding activities
ANS: C
61. The most effective method of performance evaluation is
A. A field review process
B. A continuous feedback process
C. A forced ranking process
D. A behaviorally anchored rating scale process
ANS: B
62. An employee earning $12,500 per year supervises three employees and spends 35 hours per week on essential job duties that require discretion and independent judgment. Is this employee:
A. Exempt, based on the short executive exemption test.
B. Exempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.
C. Nonexempt, based on the short executive exemption test.
D. Nonexempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.
ANS: C
63. As of September 1, 1997, the federal minimum wage is set at:
A. $5.15 per hour
B. $7.16 per hour
C. $5.75 per hour
D. $6.75 per hour
ANS: A
64. The FLSA requires employers to pay nonexempt employees for time spent:
A. At home while waiting to be called to work
B. At work reading a book while waiting for an assignment
C. Attending a voluntary training program
D. Commuting to work
ANS: B
65. Which of the following would be considered an extrinsic reward?
A. Challenging work on a new project
B. A 10 percent salary increase
C. A feeling of accomplishment after completing a tough assignment
D. Recognition by the CEO at a company meeting
ANS: D
66. An example of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan is
A. An excess deferral plan
B. A target benefit plan
C. A money purchase plan
D. A cash balance plan
ANS: A
67. The Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001
A. Requires pension plans to account for employee contributions separately from employer contributions.
B. Allows employers to contribute a percentage of company earnings to retirement plans each year.
C. Allows employees over 50 years old to make catch up contributions to retirement accounts.
D. Requires employer pension contributions to be funded on a quarterly basis.
ANS: C
68. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
A. Prevents HR from investigating claims issues
B. Requires continuation of health benefits
C. Established EPO networks
D. Limited preexisting condition restrictions
ANS: D
69. A target benefit plan
A. Uses actuarial formulas to calculate individual pension contribution amounts.
B. Requires an actual deferral percentage test to be performed each year.
C. Provides a means for employees to become owners of the company.
D. Uses a fixed percentage of employee earnings to defer compensation.
ANS: A
70. “Thanks for such a great presentation! You’ll always have a job with us.” This is an example of
A. The duty of good faith and fair dealing.
B. An express contract.
C. An implied contract.
D. Fraudulent misrepresentation.
ANS: B
71. A lockout occurs when
A. The employees shut down operations by refusing to work.
B. The employer refuses to allow the union to unionize the workplace.
C. The employer shuts down operations to keep employees from working.
D. The employees patrol the entrance to the business.
ANS: C
72. Which one of the following statements is true of a hostile work environment?
A. When a single incident of unwanted touching occurs a hostile work environment has been created.
B. A hostile work environment may be created when an individual witnesses the ongoing harassment of a coworker.
C. A hostile work environment can only be created by a supervisor.
D. A grievance procedure and policy against discrimination protect employers from hostile work environment claims.
ANS: B
73. An effective progressive disciplinary process begins with
A. A written warning.
B. A verbal warning.
C. A suspension.
D. Coaching or counseling.
ANS: D
74. During the union organizing process, the bargaining unit is determined
A. By the union organizers.
B. Jointly, by the union and the employer.
C. By the National Labor Relations Board.
D. By the employees during the election.
ANS: C
75. The Excelsior list is
A. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the employer to the union within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.
B. A list of the employees who do not want the union to represent them.
C. A list of the employees who have signed authorization cards for the union.
D. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the union to the employer within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.
ANS: A
76. When an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group, the most effective method to utilize would be
A. An employee survey.
B. A skip-level interview.
C. An employee focus group.
D. A brown-bag lunch.
ANS: B
77. Health and wellness programs are beneficial for employers because they:
A. Increase productivity, reduce medical costs, and attract top-quality job candidates
B. Provide nutrition counseling, exercise programs, and health education programs
C. Require employees to lose weight, stop smoking, and avoid substance abuse
D. Provide on-site opportunities for physical fitness
ANS: A
78. Which of the following statements is not true about substance abuse policies?
A. Substance abuse policies identify who will be tested.
B. Federal law requires all employers to implement substance abuse policies.
C. An effective policy describes when tests will occur and what drugs will be tested.
D. An effective policy describes what happens to employees who test positive.
ANS: B
79. According to the OSHA inspection priorities, which type of workplace hazard receives first priority for an inspection?
A. Catastrophes and Fatal Accidents
B. Programmed High-Hazard Inspections
C. Imminent Danger
D. Employee Complaints
ANS: C
80. When workplace conditions pose a threat to an unborn child, the company must:
A. Do nothing. It is up to employees to protect their unborn children.
B. Move the employee into a different job that does not pose a threat to the unborn child.
C. Advise the employee of the potential threat and allow the employee to make the decision.
D. Allow only sterile employees to work in jobs that pose a threat to unborn children.
ANS: C
81. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 grants employees the right to do all of the following except:
A. Be advised of potential safety hazards.
B. Speak privately to an OSHA inspector during an inspection.
C. Observe the employer when measuring and monitoring workplace hazards.
D. View detailed reports of all workplace accidents.
ANS: D
82. Which of the following activities does not contribute to ergonomic injuries?
A. Awkward postures
B. Extended vibrations
C. Falling down stairs
D. Contact stress
ANS: C
83. The OSHA consulting service
A. Helps employers identify the OSHA standards that apply to their workplace.
B. Fines employers for violating OSHA safety standards.
C. Does not require compliance with OSHA standards.
D. Is a one-time service.
ANS: A
84. A department manager advises you that the productivity of his data entry operators is unsatisfactory and asks you to develop a training program to improve their data entry skills. What is your first step?
A. Conduct a needs assessment.
B. Develop a lesson plan.
C. Talk to other managers to validate the situation.
D. Conduct a needs analysis.
ANS: A
85. According to the FCRA, employees must be notified of
All workplace investigations
A. Investigations that include an employee’s financial and other credit B. information
C. Third party investigations
D. Employer efforts to obtain previous employment data
ANS: C
86. Training methods that are focused on the learner are known as:
A. Experiential
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Vestibule
ANS: B
87. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs does not include the following need:
A. Social
B. Safety
C. Growth
D. Self-actualization
ANS: C
88. A female employee comes to you and complains that she is being sexually harassed by her supervisor, but she tells you not to tell anyone because she is afraid he will retaliate against her. What do you do?
A. Take no action since she told you in confidence.
B. Suspend the supervisor pending an investigation.
C. Ask her coworkers if they have noticed anything unusual.
D. Begin the investigative process.
ANS: D
89. What is the purpose of a diversity initiative?
A. To educate all employees about other groups in the workforce
B. To educate all employees about the benefits of diversity
C. To increase organizational creativity
D. To increase the comfort level of employees
ANS: B
90. Which of the following is not an appropriate use of an HRIS?
A. Tracking applicant data for the EEO-1
B. Tracking time and attendance
C. Tracking employee expense reports
D. Maintaining employee records
ANS: C
91. The middle value when values are arranged in order from high to low, is the
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Moving average
ANS: B
92. A basic principle behind job analysis is that
A The analysis focuses on the job, not the person.
B. The analysis focuses on the person doing the job, not the job.
C. The analysis is limited to task inventories and questionnaires.
D. The required qualifications should include everything the manager would like the employee to have.
ANS: A
93. After conducting a risk assessment, what should you do to reduce risks?
A .Identify policies that are applied inconsistently throughout the organization.
B. Obtain employment practices liability insurance.
C. Develop a plan to reduce the risks.
D. Present management with a plan for reducing the risks.
ANS: B
94. The first element in the strategic planning process is
A. Formulate the strategy.
B. Evaluate the strategy.
C. Scan the environment.
D. Implement the strategy.
ANS: C
95. Which of the following is not part of a SWOT analysis?
A. Technology
B. Strength
C. Opportunity
D. Weakness
ANS: A
96. A statement that describes what an organization does that is different from others is a:
A. Value statement
B. Corporate goal
C. Vision statement
D. Mission statement
ANS: D
97. When a zero-based budget process is used,
A. All proposed expenditures are based on historic trends and adjusted for inflation.
B. All proposed expenditures are controlled by senior management.
C. All proposed expenditures are based on goals and action plans.
D. All proposed expenditures are based on costs provided by operating managers.
ANS: C
98. Improvements in technology have had their greatest effect on
A. Employee morale
B. Productivity
C. Cost of living
D. Management’s span of control
ANS: B
99. The balanced scorecard concept does NOT
A. Tie objectives to specific performance measures.
B. Eliminate unnecessary processes to increase customer satisfaction.
C. Measure how objectives contribute to organization goals.
D. Set targets for meeting objectives.
ANS: B
100. Which of the following is an appropriate use for an HR audit?
A To determine which employees no longer have the skills needed by the organization.
B. To determine the employee productivity and turnover rates.
C. To determine whether the employee handbook is in compliance with current government regulations.
D. To determine the timeline for changes that are necessary in the HR department.
ANS: C
101. The four P’s summarize the marketing function. Which of the following is not one of the P’s?
A. Perception
B. Price
C. Placement
D. Promotion
ANS: A
102. Which of the following is one of the elements of a SMART goal?
A. Action-oriented
B. Strength
C. Technology
D. Threat
ANS: A
103. An organization that wants to maximize the speed and flexibility with which it is able to operate would be most likely to choose which of the following structures?
A. Functional
B. Seamless
C. Matrix
D. Geographic
ANS: B
104. ______________________ is one of several learning organization characteristics.
A. An assessment center
B. Massed practice
C. Systems thinking
D. Programmed instruction
ANS: C
105. Leadership and management styles, shared values and beliefs, and how the members of an organization behave is known as:
A Organization climate
B. Organization culture
C. Organization development
D. Total Quality Management
ANS: A
106. In the evaluation phase, the _________ evaluation method focuses on how well the training resulted in learning new skills and competencies.
A. Reaction
B. Learning
C. Behavior
D. Results
ANS: B
107. Which of the following factors can adversely affect transfer of training?
A. The trainer’s expertise
B. A lack of job reinforcement
C. The subject of the training
D. None of the above
ANS: B
108. A ____________________ learning curve begins slowly, with smaller learning increments but increases in pace and with larger increments as learning continues.
A. positively accelerating
B. negatively accelerating
C. S-shaped
D. plateau
ANS: A
109. The most common reason for the failure of organizational change initiatives is that
A. The strategic plan was not communicated to employees.
B. Organization leaders did not support the change.
C. There was no training system in place.
D. Employees were not prepared for the change.
ANS: D
110. The best quality tool to use for gathering information about a specific problem is:
A. A Pareto chart
B. An Ishikawa diagram
C. A stratification chart
D. A histogram
ANS: B
111. Which employee growth and assessment program is characterized by performance objectives?
A. Behavioral-based performance assessment
B. Skills-based performance assessment
C. Management by objectives (MBO)
D. Continuous feedback program
ANS: C
112. Which performance appraisal method would be used most effectively in a large, geographically dispersed organization with many similar jobs?
A. critical incident
B. forced ranking
C. behaviorally anchored rating system
D. field review
ANS: C
113. Mentoring involves someone
A. Who monitors an employee’s performance in doing their job.
B. Whose goal is to develop an employee in a particular area.
C. Who takes a personal interest in an individual’s career and who guides and sponsors the individual.
D. Who provides training in areas of interest to an employee.
ANS: C
114. The Federal Insurance Contributions Act requires employers to
A. Contribute to a defined benefit plan.
B. Contribute to a deferred compensation plan.
C. Withhold social security tax from pay.
D. Provide health insurance for all employees.
ANS: C
115. Employers are required to provide a portable retirement plan to employees based on
A. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
B. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
C. Older Worker Benefit Protection Act
D. Retirement benefits are not required by federal law
ANS: D
116. An example of an intrinsic reward is
A. Recognition of accomplishments
B. The satisfaction of a job well done
C. A great supervisor
D. An exciting assignment
ANS: B
117. Compensation philosophy can help achieve an organization’s strategic goals by
A. Attracting and retaining employees with the necessary KSAs
B. Establishing a pecking order for jobs within the organization
C. Positioning the company to lead the competition for employees
D. Maintaining an entitlement culture
ANS: A
118. An entitlement culture is appropriate for a business that needs a work force that
A. Continues to show productivity increases over time
B. Has line of sight to retirement
C. Is highly competitive in completing daily assignments
D. Has a skill set in high demand
ANS: A
119. A company that wants to reduce the cost of its unemployment insurance should
A. Aggressively fight unjustified claims for unemployment
B. Establish an effective performance management program
C. Retain employees who violate company policy
D. All of the above
ANS: D
120. A reduced FMLA leave schedule is one in which
A. The employee is absent from work multiple times for the same illness or injury
B. The employee works fewer hours each day or week
C. The employee’s leave schedule is disruptive to the work schedule
D. Accurate records of time off are maintained
ANS: B
121. The Older Worker Benefit Protection Act requires that an employee over 40 years of age who is asked to waive their rights under the act must be given
A. 7 days to consider the agreement before signing it
B. 21 days to consider the agreement before signing it
C. 5 days to consider the agreement before signing it
D. 60 days to consider the agreement before signing it
ANS: B
122. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993 does not require that
A. Group health coverage be offered for children placed for adoption before the adoption is final
B. Group health plans honor qualified medical child support orders
C. Tax deductions for executive pay be capped at $1,000,000 per year
D. Income tax be withheld from some distributions to rollover accounts
ANS: D
123. A summary plan description is required all of the following except
A. Defined contribution plans
B. Defined benefit plans
C. Flexible spending accounts
D. AD&D insurance
ANS: D
124. A supervisor has called an employee in for a interview about an inventory shortage. When the supervisor begins asking questions, the employee invokes his Weingarten rights. The supervisor has the option to
A. Stop the discussion while the employee calls an attorney.
B. Stop the discussion until a coworker is available upon return from vacation in 4 days.
C. Discontinue the interview and make the determination based on other evidence and documentation.
D. Continue the interview while waiting for the coworker to return from lunch.
ANS: C
125. An employee has resigned and during the exit interview tells HR that the reason for the resignation is that for the last three months the supervisor has been hostile, refused to provide instructions on work assignments, given the employee all of the most unpleasant tasks in the department, and verbally reprimanded the employee in front of coworkers and customers. The employee may have a cause of legal action based on
A. The employer’s duty of good faith and fair dealing
B. Constructive discharge
C. Promissory estoppel
D. Fraudulent misrepresentation
ANS: B
126. All of the following statements about employment at-will are true except:
A. The employer may terminate the employee at any time for any reason.
B. The employee may resign at any time, with or without notice.
C. The employer may terminate the employee for cooperating with an SEC investigation.
D. The employer may withdraw an offer of employment after the employee has accepted the position and resigned another job.
ANS: C
127. During a unionizing campaign, management may do the following in response to union allegations:
A. Point out the consequences of unionization based on past facts.
B. Encourage nonunion employees to talk about the reasons they don’t want the union.
C. Tell employees the company will have to move the jobs to another country if the union is elected.
D. Ask employees what the union is saying about the company.
ANS: A
128. As a result of the Sturgis case,
A. Temporary employees may only form a union and bargain with the temp agency.
B. The temporary agency must agree to bargain with a client company’s union.
C. Temporary employees who work side-by-side with regular employees may be part of the bargaining unit.
D. Temporary employees may not be unionized.
ANS: C
129. If employees no longer want the union to represent them, they may petition the NLRB for
A. Decertification
B. Deauthorization
C. Contract bar
D. Statutory bar
ANS: A
130. A union security clause that requires all employees to join the union after they are hired is
A. An agency shop clause
B. A union shop clause
C. A closed shop clause
D. A maintenance of membership clause
ANS: B
131. Double breasting occurs when
A. An employer has two companies that are substantially identical.
B. A neutral employer performs work that is normally done by striking employees.
C. An employer has two businesses, one union and one nonunion, that do substantially the same work but have different management, equipment, and customers.
D. Two businesses perform operations that are part of the same product.
ANS: C
132. During a representation election, votes may be challenged
A. By management or the union at any time
B. By management or the union before the votes are counted
C. By management only
D. By the union only
ANS: B
133. Salting is a practice in which
A. The union hires an individual to publicize its reasons for targeting an employer for unionization.
B. The union hires an individual to distribute leaflets to employees as they are leaving work at the end of the day.
C. The union hires an individual to picket the employer’s business.
D. The union hires an individual to apply for a job with an employer and begin to organize the company.
ANS: D
134. An OSHA violation with substantial probability of death or serious physical harm as the result of a workplace hazard is
A. Willful
B. Serious
C. Repeat
D. De-minimus
ANS: B
135. Under OSHA regulations, employers do not have the right to
A. Refuse to allow an OSHA inspector on the premises.
B. Request a variance to an OSHA standard while waiting for repairs.
C. Consult with OSHA to correct hazards without fear of a citation and penalty.
D. File a Notice of Contest within 30 days of the citation.
ANS: D
136. What is the best way to ensure that employees comply with the Drug-Free Workplace Act?
A. Develop and publish a written policy.
B. Notify employees about contract conditions.
C. Establish penalties for drug arrests.
D. Establish an awareness program.
ANS: A
137. The 16-year-old son of one of your friends is looking for a summer job and has been offered a job at a coal mine. Which law makes this illegal?
A. Mine Safety and Health Act
B. Occupational Safety and Health Act
C. Fair Labor Standards Acts
D. Hazard Communication
ANS: C
138. The company receptionist has always been cheerful and warm when greeting customers and has taken the initiative to do what needed to be done without waiting to be told. She’s always kept the front desk tidy and presentable for visitors. Over the last few weeks, the receptionist has become moody and called in sick several times complaining of headaches, and the reception area looks disorganized all the time. This receptionist is showing classic signs of
A. Stress
B. Job dissatisfaction
C. Substance abuse
D. SARS
ANS: A
139. The union rep has requested copies of all of the incident reports filed during the last year. You are required to
A. Furnish the copies by the end of the day.
B. Furnish copies within 15 calendar days, but only of the “Tell Us About the Case” section.
C. Furnish the copies by the end of the next business day.
D. Furnish copies within 7 calendar days, but only of the “Tell Us About the Case” section.
ANS: D
140. An employee assistance plan will not assist employees with
A. Outplacement counseling
B. Substance abuse
C. Gambling problems
D. Legal assistance
ANS: C
141. Which of the following injuries or illnesses is considered work-related?
A. An employee has twisted an ankle at an aerobics class the company sponsored.
B. An employee fell while taking a shower at work.
C. An employee is hit by a car in the parking lot while walking into the building.
D. An employee disregards the safety procedures and is cut by a table saw.
ANS: D
142. An effective Safety and Health Management Plan does not include:
A. Senior management support
B. Ongoing worksite analysis
C. Regular OSHA inspections
D. Active hazard prevention program
ANS: C
143. How can an employer determine if a job creates an ergonomic hazard for an employee?
A. Review and analyze the OSHA logs.
B. Review and analyze the worker compensation records.
C. Review the MSDS.
D. Observe the incumbent performing the job duties.
ANS: D
144. An applicant who was previously fired for misconduct by another employer does not list that employment experience on the application form and is subsequently hired. One month later, this omission is discovered. How should this situation be handled?
A. The incident should be overlooked and considered a casual omission.
B. The employee should receive a written disciplinary letter about the omission.
C. The employee should be fired for falsification of the application.
D. The previous employer should be contacted to determine the cause of the prior dismissal.
ANS: C
145. A performance appraisal approach that best meets EEO guidelines is one that is oriented to:
A. Job content.
B. General job characteristics.
C. The traits of the person in the job.
D. Using the same criteria for all positions.
ANS: A
146. Which of the following would least likely occur with the implementation of a cafeteria-style benefits program?
A. Reduced turnover
B. Less wasted or unused benefits
C. Reduced administrative costs
D. Increased employee understanding of benefit costs
ANS: C.
147. Job enrichment and job enlargement are two means of enhancing jobs through job design. What is the basic difference between the two techniques?
A. Enriching a job involves adding more tasks to an existing job while enlarging a job involves adding more responsibilities.
B. Enlarging a job indicates an increased rate of pay will accompany the new job responsibilities.
C. Enlarging a job involves adding more tasks at the same level while enriching a job involves adding more responsibilities.
D. The two terms mean the same, there is no basic difference between them.
ANS: C
148. The future demand for employees is essentially derived from the anticipated:
A. supply of external employees
B. demand for the organization's products and/or services
C. competitive forces in the labor market
D. changes in federal legislation
ANS: B
149. Collective bargaining issues that fall within the NLRA's definition of wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment are classified as what type of issues?
A. mandatory
B. permissive
C. voluntary
D. prohibited
ANS: A
150. In a firm's training and development program, the trainee must believe that improved skills will lead to desired outcomes and that efforts in the training program will result in improved skills. These assumptions are related to which motivation theory?
A. expectancy theory
B. reinforcement theory
C. motivation-hygiene theory
D. equity theory
ANS: A
151. Upon what piece of federal legislation are labor laws primarily based?
A. The Norris-LaGuardia Act
B. The Walsh-Healey Act
C. The Davis-Bacon Act
D. The Wagner Act
ANS: D
152. What is the primary advantage for an employer to provide vesting in its profit sharing program on a gradual basis?
A. Reduces cost
B. Encourages interest in the plan
C. Improves employee morale
D. Reduces turnover
ANS: D
153. When regression analysis is used in human resource research, a potential dependent variable might be:
A. biographical data
B. personal goals
C. length of employment
D. test scores
ANS: C
154. A high involvement organization is an example of what type of OD intervention?
A. human process
B. human resource management
C. techno-structural
D. strategic
ANS: C
155. The ______________________ seating arrangement is best for case discussions where everyone can observe each other and a trainer.
A. theater style
B. U-shaped style
C. classroom style
D. banquet style
ANS: B
156. According to the Copyright Act of 1976, which of the following is most likely to be considered a fair use of copyrighted material?
A. Distributing 30 copies of a chapter in a book to a study group
B. Copying a book for 10 staff members of a non-profit organization
C. Distributing 30 copies of a paragraph in a book to a study group
D. None of the above
ANS: C
157. A process for reducing the impact of bias during performance reviews by using multiple raters is known as:
A. Inter-rater reliability
B. An MBO review
C. A rating scale
D. Paired comparison
ANS: A
158. To increase the chances for successful repatriation of employees, the process should include:
A. Development of a qualified pool of candidates for global assignments
B. A formal repatriation program that includes career counseling
C. Setting expectations for repatriation before employees begin global assignments
D. All of the above
ANS: D
159. Total quality management focuses all employees on producing products that meet customer needs. This is done by:
A. Eliminating processes that waste time and materials
B. Developing a high level of expertise in all employees
C. Sharing information with all levels in the organization
D. Balancing the needs of all stakeholders in the organization
ANS: A
160. Which of the following is an example of a strategic OD intervention?
A. Leadership development
B. Total quality management
C. A learning organization
D. Teambuilding activities
ANS: C
161. The most effective method of performance evaluation is
A. A field review process
B. A continuous feedback process
C. A forced ranking process
D. A behaviorally anchored rating scale process
ANS: B
162. An employee earning $12,500 per year supervises three employees and spends 35 hours per week on essential job duties that require discretion and independent judgment. Is this employee:
A. Exempt, based on the short executive exemption test.
B. Exempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.
C. Nonexempt, based on the short executive exemption test.
D. Nonexempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.
ANS: C
163. As of September 1, 1997, the federal minimum wage is set at:
A. $5.15 per hour
B. $7.16 per hour
C. $5.75 per hour
D. $6.75 per hour
ANS: A
164. The FLSA requires employers to pay nonexempt employees for time spent:
A. At home while waiting to be called to work
B. At work reading a book while waiting for an assignment
C. Attending a voluntary training program
D. Commuting to work
ANS: B
165. Which of the following would be considered an extrinsic reward?
A. Challenging work on a new project
B. A 10 percent salary increase
C. A feeling of accomplishment after completing a tough assignment
D. Recognition by the CEO at a company meeting
ANS: D
166. An example of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan is
A. An excess deferral plan
B. A target benefit plan
C. A money purchase plan
D. A cash balance plan
ANS: A
167. The Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001
A. Requires pension plans to account for employee contributions separately from employer contributions.
B. Allows employers to contribute a percentage of company earnings to retirement plans each year.
C. Allows employees over 50 years old to make catch up contributions to retirement accounts.
D. Requires employer pension contributions to be funded on a quarterly basis.
ANS: C
168. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
A. Prevents HR from investigating claims issues
B. Requires continuation of health benefits
C. Established EPO networks
D. Limited preexisting condition restrictions
ANS: D
169. A target benefit plan
A. Uses actuarial formulas to calculate individual pension contribution amounts.
B. Requires an actual deferral percentage test to be performed each year.
C. Provides a means for employees to become owners of the company.
D. Uses a fixed percentage of employee earnings to defer compensation.
ANS: A
170. “Thanks for such a great presentation! You’ll always have a job with us.” This is an example of
A. The duty of good faith and fair dealing.
B. An express contract.
C. An implied contract.
D. Fraudulent misrepresentation.
ANS: B
171. A lockout occurs when
A. The employees shut down operations by refusing to work.
B. The employer refuses to allow the union to unionize the workplace.
C. The employer shuts down operations to keep employees from working.
D. The employees patrol the entrance to the business.
ANS: C
172. Which one of the following statements is true of a hostile work environment?
A. When a single incident of unwanted touching occurs a hostile work environment has been created.
B. A hostile work environment may be created when an individual witnesses the ongoing harassment of a coworker.
C. A hostile work environment can only be created by a supervisor.
D. A grievance procedure and policy against discrimination protect employers from hostile work environment claims.
ANS: B
173. An effective progressive disciplinary process begins with
A. A written warning.
B. A verbal warning.
C. A suspension.
D. Coaching or counseling.
ANS: D
174. During the union organizing process, the bargaining unit is determined
A. By the union organizers.
B. Jointly, by the union and the employer.
C. By the National Labor Relations Board.
D. By the employees during the election.
ANS: C
175. The Excelsior list is
A. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the employer to the union within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.
B. A list of the employees who do not want the union to represent them.
C. A list of the employees who have signed authorization cards for the union.
D. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the union to the employer within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.
ANS: A
176. When an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group, the most effective method to utilize would be
A. An employee survey.
B. A skip-level interview.
C. An employee focus group.
D. A brown-bag lunch.
ANS: B
177. Health and wellness programs are beneficial for employers because they:
A. Increase productivity, reduce medical costs, and attract top-quality job candidates
B. Provide nutrition counseling, exercise programs, and health education programs
C. Require employees to lose weight, stop smoking, and avoid substance abuse
D. Provide on-site opportunities for physical fitness
ANS: A
178. Which of the following statements is not true about substance abuse policies?
A. Substance abuse policies identify who will be tested.
B. Federal law requires all employers to implement substance abuse policies.
C. An effective policy describes when tests will occur and what drugs will be tested.
D. An effective policy describes what happens to employees who test positive.
ANS: B
179. According to the OSHA inspection priorities, which type of workplace hazard receives first priority for an inspection?
A. Catastrophes and Fatal Accidents
B. Programmed High-Hazard Inspections
C. Imminent Danger
D. Employee Complaints
ANS: C
180. When workplace conditions pose a threat to an unborn child, the company must:
A. Do nothing. It is up to employees to protect their unborn children.
B. Move the employee into a different job that does not pose a threat to the unborn child.
C. Advise the employee of the potential threat and allow the employee to make the decision.
D. Allow only sterile employees to work in jobs that pose a threat to unborn children.
ANS: C
181. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 grants employees the right to do all of the following except:
A. Be advised of potential safety hazards.
B. Speak privately to an OSHA inspector during an inspection.
C. Observe the employer when measuring and monitoring workplace hazards.
D. View detailed reports of all workplace accidents.
ANS: D
182. Which of the following activities does not contribute to ergonomic injuries?
A. Awkward postures
B. Extended vibrations
C. Falling down stairs
D. Contact stress
ANS: C
183. The OSHA consulting service
A. Helps employers identify the OSHA standards that apply to their workplace.
B. Fines employers for violating OSHA safety standards.
C. Does not require compliance with OSHA standards.
D. Is a one-time service.
ANS: A
184. A department manager advises you that the productivity of his data entry operators is unsatisfactory and asks you to develop a training program to improve their data entry skills. What is your first step?
A. Conduct a needs assessment.
B. Develop a lesson plan.
C. Talk to other managers to validate the situation.
D. Conduct a needs analysis.
ANS: A
185. According to the FCRA, employees must be notified of
All workplace investigations
A. Investigations that include an employee’s financial and other credit B. information
C. Third party investigations
D. Employer efforts to obtain previous employment data
ANS: C
186. Training methods that are focused on the learner are known as:
A. Experiential
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Vestibule
ANS: B
187. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs does not include the following need:
A. Social
B. Safety
C. Growth
D. Self-actualization
ANS: C
188. A female employee comes to you and complains that she is being sexually harassed by her supervisor, but she tells you not to tell anyone because she is afraid he will retaliate against her. What do you do?
A. Take no action since she told you in confidence.
B. Suspend the supervisor pending an investigation.
C. Ask her coworkers if they have noticed anything unusual.
D. Begin the investigative process.
ANS: D
189. What is the purpose of a diversity initiative?
A. To educate all employees about other groups in the workforce
B. To educate all employees about the benefits of diversity
C. To increase organizational creativity
D. To increase the comfort level of employees
ANS: B
190. Which of the following is not an appropriate use of an HRIS?
A. Tracking applicant data for the EEO-1
B. Tracking time and attendance
C. Tracking employee expense reports
D. Maintaining employee records
ANS: C
191. The middle value when values are arranged in order from high to low, is the
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Moving average
ANS: B
192. A basic principle behind job analysis is that
A The analysis focuses on the job, not the person.
B. The analysis focuses on the person doing the job, not the job.
C. The analysis is limited to task inventories and questionnaires.
D. The required qualifications should include everything the manager would like the employee to have.
ANS: A
193. After conducting a risk assessment, what should you do to reduce risks?
A .Identify policies that are applied inconsistently throughout the organization.
B. Obtain employment practices liability insurance.
C. Develop a plan to reduce the risks.
D. Present management with a plan for reducing the risks.
ANS: B
194. The first element in the strategic planning process is
A. Formulate the strategy.
B. Evaluate the strategy.
C. Scan the environment.
D. Implement the strategy.
ANS: C
195. Which of the following is not part of a SWOT analysis?
A. Technology
B. Strength
C. Opportunity
D. Weakness
ANS: A
196. A statement that describes what an organization does that is different from others is a:
A. Value statement
B. Corporate goal
C. Vision statement
D. Mission statement
ANS: D
197. When a zero-based budget process is used,
A. All proposed expenditures are based on historic trends and adjusted for inflation.
B. All proposed expenditures are controlled by senior management.
C. All proposed expenditures are based on goals and action plans.
D. All proposed expenditures are based on costs provided by operating managers.
ANS: C
198. Improvements in technology have had their greatest effect on
A. Employee morale
B. Productivity
C. Cost of living
D. Management’s span of control
ANS: B
199. The balanced scorecard concept does NOT
A. Tie objectives to specific performance measures.
B. Eliminate unnecessary processes to increase customer satisfaction.
C. Measure how objectives contribute to organization goals.
D. Set targets for meeting objectives.
ANS: B
200. Which of the following is an appropriate use for an HR audit?
A To determine which employees no longer have the skills needed by the organization.
B. To determine the employee productivity and turnover rates.
C. To determine whether the employee handbook is in compliance with current government regulations.
D. To determine the timeline for changes that are necessary in the HR department.
ANS: C
201. An EEO-I must be filed if ___ employees are working for an individual company.
A. 15
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
ANS: D
202. The Fair Labor Standards Act allows employees to recover pay up to __ years of back pay.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANS: B
203. Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-evaluations?
A. Tendency to inflate ratings due to self-serving bias.
B. Tendency to inflate ratings due to blind spots.
C. Women and nonwhites tend to rate themselves lower.
D. Majority will show a tendency of show poor differentiation of skills.
ANS: D
204. Which of the following is not a guideline for reducing perceptual factors?
A. Recognize external causes of behavior.
B. Be aware of stereotypes, biases and assumptions.
C. Emphasize objective information.
D. Increase customer awareness.
ANS: D
205. Which of the following is not a strategy for improving decision making?
A. Ask lots of questions.
B. Learn from prior decisions.
C. Prioritize decisions into short-term and long-term priorities.
D. Never use the Plan-Do-Check-Act Cycle of decision making.
ANS: D
206. Which of the following is matches the definition, a system in which unions and management negotiate with each other to develop the work rules under which union members will work for a stipulated period of time?
A. Union steward exchange
B. Team building
C. Collective bargaining
D. Break-even analysis
ANS: C
207. Which of the following is another name for an Ishikawa diagram?
A. Cause and Effect Diagram
B. Bell Curve
C. Pareto Diagram
D. Trend Analysis
ANS: A
208. The acronym CPPC stands for?
A. Cost Plus Percentage of Control
B. Cost Plus Percentage of Contract
C. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
D. Cost Plus Cost
ANS: C
209. Which of the following is not considered part of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
A. Social needs
B. Safety
C. Motivation
D. Self-actualization
ANS: C
210. Parento diagrams work on the ___ rule.
A. 50/50
B. 60/40
C. 80/20
D. 90/10
ANS: C
211. Which of the following is not a characteristic of The FISH Philosophy?
A. Play
B. Make Their Day
C. Be There
D. Strategy culture
ANS: D
212. Which of the following is not a characteristic of stress in the workplace?
A. 43% of all adults suffer adverse effects from stress.
B. Stress management techniques increase employee negligence.
C. 75-90% of all physician office visits are for stress-related ailments.
D. Stress costs U.S. industry more than $300 billion dollars per year, or $7,500 per worker.
ANS: B
213. Which of the following is the correct formula for turnover rates according to the Department of Labor?
A. (Number of Terminations x 100)/(Avg. Number of Employees)
B. (Number of Terminations x 10/(Avg. Number of Employees)
C. (Avg. Number of Employees)/(Number of Terminations)
D. (Avg. Number of Employees)/(Number of Terminations x 10)
ANS: A
214. Which of the following occurs if an employee comes to work with an inappropriate dress length and is then promptly sent home to change clothes?
A. Punishment
B. Extinction
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Negative reinforcement
ANS: A
215. If an employee is earning a pay rate that is excessive compared to their counterparts of equal ability, their pay rate may be identified as a/an ____ rate.
A. Green circle
B. Evaluation
C. Red circle
D. Bandwidth
ANS: C
216. The Griggs v. Duke Power case created the judicial concept of
A. adverse treatment
B. disparate treatment
C. adverse impact
D. sexual discrimination
ANS: c
217. How many weeks of unpaid leave must an employer let an employee take under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)?
A. 6 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 12 weeks
ANS: D
218. Which of the following is NOT considered a human process intervention?
A. leadership development
B. redesigning jobs
C. teambuilding exercises
D. conflict resolution
ANS: B
219. What is the first step the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) will take when there is a complaint of alleged discrimination?
A. the EEOC will review the charges to see if they have jurisdiction
B. the EEOC will issue a "right to sue" notice to the complainant
C. the EEOC will send a letter to the employer informing them that a D. complaint has been filed
the EEOC determines whether or not there is "reasonable" cause
ANS: C
220. Which term describes when a business owner operates both a union organization and a non-union organization?
A .yellow-dog contract
B. double-breasting
C. common situs
D. coordinated bargaining
ANS: B
221. A manager is meeting with an employee to conduct an annual performance review. The employee is very skilled in one area but weak in every other as it relates to performance. The manager gives the employee an extremely high performance review rating in lieu of this. Which of the following BEST describes the error that may have occurred during this performance review?
A. horn effect
B. central tendency
C. recently
D. halo effect
ANS: D
222. As the value of one variable increase, the other decreases. This is an example of a:
A. positive correlation
B. no correlation
C. negative correlation
D. standard correlation
ANS: C
223. Which OSHA standard provides guidelines for preparing an emergency action plan and includes specifications for unobstructed and continuous means of exit from any point in a building?
A. Means of Egress standard
B. Hearing Conservation standard
C. Machine Guarding standard
D. Control of Hazardous Energy standard
ANS: A
224. The McDonnell-Douglas Corp. v. Green case established the concept of
A. adverse impact
B. employer unfair labor practices
C. reverse discrimination
D. disparate treatment
ANS: D
225. You could use the IRS 20-Factor Test to determine?
A. if an employee is non-exempt
B. whether someone is an employee or an independent contractor
C. if an employee is exempt
D. if an OSHA inspection will occur because of an accident
ANS: B
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